Agronomy Top 100 Important Objective Type Question For Competition Exams

1.Which of the following crop has highest cultivated area in the world ?

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(c) Barley

(d) Bajra

2. Rice is originated in

(a) SW Asia
(b) Europe
(c) South America
(d) India & Burma

3. India has the largest area in rice cultivation in the world, which is about

(a) 26 mha

(b) 36 mha

(c) 45 mhar

(d) 50 mha

4. Productivity of rice is highest in

(A) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh

5. The genus Oryza includes

(a) 14 species
(b) 22 species
(c) 24 species
(d) 30 species

6. The varieties which belong to species Oryza glaberrima are found in

(a) Europe
(b) Asia
(c) America
(d) Africa

7. The rice varieties grown in India belongs to

(a) Indica
(b) Japonica
(c) Jamaica
(d) Asiatica

8. Rice grown in Indonesia belongs to
(a) O. glaberrima
(b) O. sativa indica
(c) O. sativa japonica
(d) O. sativa javanica

9. The rice inflorescence is known as

(a) Panicle
(b) Spikelets
(c) Ear
(d) Siliqua

10. The dehulled rice grain is known as

(a) White rice
(b) Brown rice
(c) Red rice
(d) Grey rice

11. Rice crop needs

(a) Warm and humid climate
(b) Hot and humid climate
(c) Dry and hot conditions
(d) Cold and dry climate

12. For ripening of rice, temperature should lie between

(a) 21 – 37°C
(b) 26.5 29.5°C
(c) 20-25°C
(d) 15 20°C

13. Photoperiodically, rice is a type of plant

(a) Long day
(b) Short day
(c) Day neutral
(d) Intermediate

14. The sowing time of Aus rice is

(a) Nov. Dec
(b) June – July
(c) May-June
(d) March April

15. The sowing time of boro or dalua rice is

(a) Nov. Dec.
(b) June – July
(c) May-June
(d) March April

16. The optimum pH of soil for rice cultivation varies in range

(a) 4-6
(b) 5-6.5
(c) 6-7
(d) 7-97

17. IR-8 variety of rice is introduced in India

(a) Taiwan
(b) Philippines
(c) Indonesia
(d) USA

18. Which of the following variety is a dwarf mutant ?

(a) IR-8
(b) Jaya.
(c) Pusa-2-21
(d) Jagannath

19. The seed rate of rice cultivation in broadcasting and drilling method, respectively should be

(a) 100, 60 kg/ha
(b) 60, 100 kg/ha
(c) 45, 100 kg/ha
(d) 100, 45 kg/ha.

20. For transplanting one hectare area of rice how much area is sufficient for nursery raising

(a) 100 m²
(b) 500 m²
(c) 1000 m²
(d) 1500 m²

21. Dapog method of raising nursery of rice has been introduced in India from

(a) Indonesia
(b) Taiwan
(c) Israel
(d) Philippines

22. In wet bed method of nursery raising of rice, seedling would be ready for transplanting at an age of

(a) 14 days
(b) 15 20 days
(c) 20 – 25 days
(d) 25 – 30 days

23. In rice, Dapog seedlings would be ready
for transplanting in

(a) 11 – 14 days
(b) 14 17 days
(c) 17-20 days
(d) 20 23 days

24. The Kresek occurs in early stage of plant
growth of rice in

(a) BLB
(b) Bacterial leaf streak
(c)Tungro virus
(d) False Smut

25. Tungro virus of rice is transmitted by

(a) Stem borer
(b) Leaf roller
(c) Green leaf hopper
(d) Gundhi bug

26. Dead heart and white head damage to
rice is caused by

(a) Gall midge
(b)Leaf roller
(c) Army worm
(d) Stem borer

27. Silvery shoot or onion leaf symptom of rice tillers is caused by

(a) Rice hispa
(b) Gall midge
(c) Leaf roller
(d) Gundhi bug

28. Grassy stunt virus disease of rice is
transmitted by

(a) Green leaf hopper
(b) Brown plant hopper (c) White fly
(d) Gundhi bug

29. Gundhi bug insect attack on rice during

(a) Germination
(b) Flowering
(c)Milking stage
(d) Harvesting stage

30. Test weight of basmati rice is

(a) 15 g
(b) 21 g
(c) 24 g
(d) 30 g

31. Golden rice is a rich source of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Ascorbic acid
(d) Vitamin K

32. Idea of super rice was given by

(a) GH Shull
(b) GS Khush
(c) VL Chopra
(d) Yoshida

33. Government of India started subsidy on fertilizers with effect from

(a) Nov. 1, 1966
(b) Nov. 1, 1969
(c) Nov. 1, 1977
(d) Oct. 2, 1988

34. The scientific name of common bread wheat is

(a) T. dicoccum
(b) Triticum aestivum
(c) T. spherococcum
(d) T. spelta

35. Indian dwarf wheat belongs to

(a) T. durum
(b) Triticum aestivum
(c) T. spherococcum
(d) T. spelta

36. Select the pair which is not correctly matched.

(a) Emmer wheat T. dicoccum
(b) Macaroni T. durum
(c) Mexican wheat – T. aestivum
(d) Indian dwarf wheat – T. vulgare

37. Wheat is originated in

(a) South America
(b) Central Asia (Turkey)
(c) SE Asia
(d) Europe

38. Common bread wheat (2n 42) is =

(a) Diploid
(b) Tetraploid
(c) Hexaploid
(d) Triploid

39. Maximum area under wheat is in

(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) China

40. Which country rank second in wheat production?

(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) China

41. The first wheat variety having short plant height, lodging resistance and
higher grain yield was

(a) Dee-gee-woo – gen
(b) Norin-10
(c) Lerma Rojo 64A
(d) Sonara – 64

42. Temperature requirement for proper grain filling of wheat is

(a) 20 25°C
(b) 20 23°C
(c) 23 – 25°C
(d) 16 20°C

43. The inflorescence of wheat is known as

(a) Ear
(b) Raceme
(d) Umbel
(c) Panicle

44. The normal seed rate of wheat is

(a) 50 kg/ha
(b) 75 kg/ha
(c) 100 kg/ha
(d) 125 kg/ha

45. Wheat crop yielding 50 quintals of grain per hectare removes N, P,O, and K₂O kg/ha, respectively

(a) 100 – 150, 70 – 80 and 125 – 150
(b) 90 100,, 60 – 70 and 100 – 110
(c) 120 – 40 – 80
(d) 80 – 30/40 – 20

46. The recommended dose of N, P,O, and K₂O kg/ha for wheat are

(a) 80 400
(b) 120 40 – 0
(c) 30 – 200
(d) 40 30 0

47. N, P,O, and K,O contents of DAP are

(a) 46 – 18-0
(b) 18 – 46-0
(c) 0 – 18-46
(d) 0-46-18

48. The N fertilizer use efficiency in rice can be increased by using

(a) S-coated urea
(b) Urea super granules
(c) BGA
(d) Both (a) and (b)

49. Triticale is a cross between

(a) Wheat x rye
(b) Oat x barley
(c) Wheat barley
(d) None of these

50. Phalaris minor belongs to the family

(a) Cyperacene
(b) Gramineae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Malvaceae

51. The nitrogen losses in rice can be reduced by placing NH, fertilizer in

(a) Oxidised zone
(b) Reduced zone
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

52. Green revolution has been most successful in

(a) Wheat & potato
(b) Wheat & rice
(c) Tea & coffee
(d) Barley & rice

53. Record production of food grains was ensured in

(a) 1999-2000
(b) 2000-01
(c) 2011-12
(d) 2004-05

54. ‘Akiochi’ disease in rice is due to the toxicity caused by

(a) Zinc
(c) Phosphorus
(b) Iron
(d) Hydrogen sulphide

55. At pH 4.0, the predominant ionic form of phosphorus present is

(a) HPO

(c) PO

(b) H,PO

(d) None of these

56. First irrigation to the wheat crop should be given at

(a) CRI stage

(b) Tillering stage

(c) Jointing stage

(d) Dough stage

57. Phalaris minor in wheat can be controlled by using

(a) 2,4-D

(b) Isoproturon

(c) Atrazine

(d) Gramaxone

58. Test weight of Phalaris minor is

(a) 2 g

(b) 4 g

(c) 22 g

(d) 40 g

59. Directorate of Wheat Research (DWR) is located at

(a) Hyderabad

(b) Karnal

(c) New Delhi

(d) Bikaner

60. The scientific name of noble cane is

(a) Saccharum officinarum

(b) Saccharum spontaneum

(c) S. barberi

(d) S. sinense

61. Saccharum officinarum is a native of

(a) New Guinea

(B) Indonesia

(C) India

(d) China

62. Which state has the highest productivity of sugarcane?

(a) U.P.

(b) W. B.

(c) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

63. Which state has the largest acreage and highest production of sugarcane in

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Karnataka

(c) U.P.

(d) Bihar

64. Which of the following roots are of permanent type on sugarcane cane setts ?

(a) Sett roots

(b) Shoot roots

(c) Prop roots

(d) All of these

65. The inflorescence of sugarcane is known

(a) Arrow

(b) Panicle

(c) Capitulum

(d) Racemose

66. The best suited temperature for growth
of sugarcane lies between

(a) 15 – 20°C

(b) 20 – 25°C

(c) 26 – 32°C

(d) 32-35°C

67. AICRP on sugarcane was started in

(a) 1959

(b) 1960

(c) 1970 – 71

(d) 1985 – 86

68. Adsali sugarcane is planted in

(a) July-August

(b) January-February

(c) February-March

(d) October-November

69. The top portion of sugarcane should be selected for seed purposes because bud
tissues are rich in

(a) Sucrose

(b) Glucose

(c) Galactose

(d) Maltose

70. Which element is essential for sugar translocation in sugarcane?

(a) P

(b) K

(c) B

(d) Mo

71. Which growth stage of sugarcane is
critical for irrigation ?

(a) Germination

(b) Grand growth phase

(c) Formative stage

(d) Ripening stage

72. Most critical weed competition period is upto months after transplanting
exist in sugarcane

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 5

(d) 6

73. Most common herbicides used for weed control in sugarcane is/are

(a) Simazine

(b) Atrazine

(c) Alachlor

(d) All of the these

74. Most serious disease of sugarcane is

(a) Red stripe

(b) Red rot

(c) Wilt

(d) Smut

75. How many setts are needed to plant one hectare of sugarcane?

(a) 30,000-35,000

(b) 35,000-40,000

(c) 40,000-45,000

(d) 50,000 – 55,000

76. Trench method of sugarcane planting is used in

(a) North India

(b) Western India

(c) Coastal areas

(d) Waterlogged area

77. With too much increase in nitrogen application, sugar content in juice is

(a) Decreased

(b) Increased

(c) Remain constant

(d) None of the above

78. Epricania melanoleuca is a parasitoid effective against

(a) Sugarcane scale

(b) Rice mealy bug

(c) Sugarcane pyrilla

(d) Rice leaf hopper

79. Which one of the following types of resistance is present in a crop variety showing high degree of resistance to a pathogen but becoming susceptible to it after large scale cultivation for 4 to 5 years or so ?

(a) Vertical resistance

(b) Horizontal résistance

(c) Durable resistance

(d) General resistance

80. Which one of the following food grains
is most coarse ?

(a) Panicum miliaceum

(b) Echinochloa frumentacea

(c) Setaria italica

(d) Paspalum scrobiculatum

81. Which one of the following pairs of crops and critical stage of irrigation is not
correctly matched ?

(a) Bajra : Ear head

(b) Cotton : Pre-flowering

(c) Wheat : Crown root initiation

(d) Groundnut : : Pod development

82. Contribution of flag
photosynthates is about
leaf in

(a) 52%

(b) 35%

(c) 40%

(d) 20%

83. Which one of the following crops is most sensitive to both excess moisture and drought?

(a) Direct seeded rice

(b) Maize

(c) Sunflower

(d) Sorghum

84. Atrazine used as an antitranspirant

(a) Reduces the growth of the crop

(b) Does not reflect light from plant leaf surface

(c) Affects the closure and opening of stomata.

85. ‘Atrazine’ effectively control grasses in maize field without causing harm to the crop plants, as degradation of the chemical in maize plant occurs due to
the presence of

(a) R-Q enzyme

(b) Amylases

(c) Aryl acyl amidase

(d) GSH enzyme

86. Which one of the following is mycoheribicide?

(a) Diquat

(b) Met sulfuron methyl

(c) Collego

(d) Bromacil

87. Which one of the following crop rotation is the best for maintaining soil fertility?

(a) Maize – toria – wheat

(b) Paddy – wheat – cowpea

(c) Paddy – potato – greengram

(d) Soybean – wheat – greengram

88. Productivity of an intercrop per unit area of ground compared with that expected from sole crop sown in the same proportions is termed as

(a) Land equivalent ratio

(b) Competitive ratio

(c) Land equivalent coefficient

(d) Crop performance ratio

89. Which one of the following fertilizer schedule is recommended to optimize the productivity in intercropping system?

(a) Full recommended dose of both the main crop and intercrop,

(b) Full recommended dose of main crop
and half of intercrop,

(c) Half recommended dose of main crop and intercrop,

(d) Full recommended dose of main crop only

90. The capacity of a soil to resist appreciable change in pH value is called

(a) CEC

(b) Buffering capacity

(c) Percentage base saturation

(d) Anion-exchange capacity

91. Mechanical analysis of soil makes use of

(a) Darcy’s law

(b) Stoke’s law

(c) Schofield’s law

(d) Ohm’s law

92. Which one of the following planting geometry is recommended to optimize system productivity in intercropping system in semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystem?

(a) Normal planting of intercrops between two rows of normal planted main crop

(b) Skip row planting

(c) Three rows of main crop and two rows of intercrops

(d) Four rows of main crop and one row of intercrops

93. Which of the following is the ideal temperature range for tillering stage in wheat?

(a) 10 – 15°C

(b) 16 20°C

(c) 20-23°C

(d) 23 – 25°C

94. The element which does not enter into permanent organic combination in plants is

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Phosphorus

(c) Magnesium

(d) Potassium

95. The plateau with little growth rate and continuing accumulation of nutrient element in the plants can be defined as

(a) Severe deficiency range

(b) Toxic range

(c) Moderate deficiency range

(d) Sufficiency range

96. The major organic cementing agent in
soil aggregate formation is

(a) Lipids

(b) Proteins and protein derivatives

(c) Polysaccharides

(d) Organic acids

97. Tetrazoloin test is used to determine

(a) Seed purity

(b) Seed germination

(c) Seed viability

(d) Seed quality

98. How much quantity of true potato seed is required for one hectare planting ?

(a) 100 g

(c) 300 g

(b) 200 g

(d) 400 g

99. The largest producer of mothbean in
India is

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Punjab

(c) M.P.

(d) Uttar Pradesh

  1. The process of replacement of one atom by another atom of similar size, in a crystal lattice of a soil clay without disrupting or changing the crystal structure of the mineral is termed as

(a) Ion exchange

(b) Isomerism

(c) Isomorphic substitution

(d) Polymorphism

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